My spouse moved for work to a new city where her new employer was located. However, though we started the moving process and entered into a purchase of a new home in the city of her new workplace, her eventual working conditions/arrangement did not require her to be physically present in the office (remote/work from home). Since she did intend to move for work and incurred moving expenses, would she still be able to claim them or would they not be eligible since her new employment did not ultimately require her to be working from the city they are located? Thank you!
